But you don't have to take my word for it . . . 12:18-12:46
The Spanish Shakespeare?
This got me thinking, that if Shakespeare is translated everywhere, what about Vega? Why is it that Shakespeare's words are translated into 72 languages and Vega remains well-known only to the Spanish literary tradition? Perhaps because although Vega has his own unique storylines, for Shakespeare, “the language IS the storyline" as one SpanishDict chatroom user put it. That leads me to my thesis:
I feel that my thesis lacks a "so what?" element though. Should I argue Shakespeare can only truly be read in the English language it was written in?
I've also been pursuing another avenue with Richard III that has nothing to do with Spanish. Thesis: A psychoanalytic Freudian reading of Shakespeare’s Richard
III reveals Shakespeare’s villain as a victim of Renaissance ignorance.
I've dug up some interesting things on this idea by looking at Thomas More's History of Richard III (in truth More was making up absurd, exaggerated facts about Richard) but I'm not sure if I should take this route.
Votes?
Perhaps Ian will be interested in the villain angle in your second thesis.
ReplyDeleteAs for the first, claiming unique interpretations for various translations is not interesting because it is to be expected. The same goes for claiming Shakespeare can only be read in English. If you argue the opposite of either of these, suddenly it would become very interesting. One other angle you might consider is the difference between translated *texts* and translated *performances*. These may differ in terms of fidelity to or continuity with Shakespeare.
I like the comparative approach, delving into a parallel playwright from the Spanish tradition. It would be good to bring in Spanish poetics and literary history in order to contextualize any Spanish translation of Shakespeare.